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To prepare for the CompTIA CAS-004 exam, candidates can take advantage of a wide range of resources and study materials. There are numerous online courses, study guides, and practice exams available, as well as instructor-led training programs. In addition, candidates can also gain practical experience through hands-on projects and real-world scenarios, which will provide them with the necessary skills and expertise to pass the exam and succeed in their careers. Overall, the CompTIA CAS-004 certification is an excellent way for professionals to demonstrate their advanced cybersecurity skills and stand out in a competitive job market.
The CASP+ certification is aimed at professionals who have a minimum of ten years of experience in IT administration, including at least five years of hands-on experience in technical security. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification covers a broad range of topics, including risk management, enterprise security architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.
CompTIA CASP+ certification is recognized worldwide as a validation of advanced-level security skills and knowledge. It is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific hardware or software platform. This makes it an ideal certification for IT professionals who work with a variety of systems and technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Device event logs sources from MDM software as follows:
Which of the following security concerns and response actions would BEST address the risks posed by the device in the logs?
- A. Impossible travel; disable the device's account and access while investigating.
- B. Falsified status reporting; remotely wipe the device.
- C. Malicious installation of an application; change the MDM configuration to remove application ID 1220.
- D. Resource leak; recover the device for analysis and clean up the local storage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of a compromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device's account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 57
A penetration tester is given an assignment lo gain physical access to a secure facility with perimeter cameras.
The secure facility does not accept visitors and entry is available only through a door protected by an RFID key and a guard stationed inside the door.
Which of the following would be BEST for the penetration tester to attempt?
- A. Gam entry into the building by posing as a contractor who is performing routine building maintenance
- B. Duplicate an employees RFID badge and use an IR camera to see when the guard leaves the post
- C. Look for an open window that can be used to gain unauthorized entry into the facility
- D. Tailgate into the facility with an employee who has a valid RFID badge to enter
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 58
A security analyst is performing a review of a web application. During testing as a standard user, the following error log appears:
Which of the following BEST describes the analyst's findings and a potential mitigation technique?
- A. The findings indicate a SQL injection. The database needs to be upgraded.
- B. The findings indicate information disclosure. The displayed error message should be modified.
- C. The findings indicate unsecure references. All potential user input needs to be properly sanitized.
- D. The findings indicate unsecure protocols All cookies should be marked as HttpOnly.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
A company created an external application for its customers. A security researcher now reports that the application has a serious LDAP injection vulnerability that could be leveraged to bypass authentication and authorization.
Which of the following actions would BEST resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
- A. Conduct input sanitization.
- B. Patch the OS
- C. Deploy a SIEM.
- D. Deploy a WAF.
- E. Use containers.
- F. Deploy a reverse proxy
- G. Deploy an IDS.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A developer is creating a new mobile application for a company. The application uses REST API and TLS 1.2 to communicate securely with the external back-end server. Due to this configuration, the company is concerned about HTTPS interception attacks.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution against this type of attack?
- A. Certificate pinning
- B. Wildcard certificates
- C. Cookies
- D. HSTS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:https://cloud.google.com/security/encryption-in-transit
Certificate pinning is a technique that can prevent HTTPS interception attacks by hardcoding the expected certificate or public key of the server in the application code, so that any certificate presented by an intermediary will be rejected. Cookies are small pieces of data that are stored by browsers to remember user preferences or sessions, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Wildcard certificates are certificates that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security) is a policy that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections, but it does not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certificate-pinninghttps://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resourc
NEW QUESTION # 61
A security researcher detonated some malware in a lab environment and identified the following commands running from the EDR tool:
With which of the following MITRE ATT&CK TTPs is the command associated? (Select TWO).
- A. Network denial of service
- B. Inhibit system recovery
- C. Indirect command execution
- D. System information discovery
- E. External remote services
- F. OS credential dumping
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified Reference:
https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/
https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/
https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic
NEW QUESTION # 62
An enterprise is configuring an SSL client-based VPN for certificate authentication.
The trusted root certificate from the CA is imported into the firewall, and the VPN configuration in the firewall is configured for certificate authentication.
Signed certificates from the trusted CA are distributed to user devices. The CA certificate is set as trusted on the end-user devices, and the VPN client is configured on the end-user devices.
When the end users attempt to connect however, the firewall rejects the connection after a brief period.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the firewall rejects the connection?
- A. In the router, IPSec traffic needs to be allowed in bridged mode
- B. In the CA, the SAN field must be set for the root CA certificate and then reissued
- C. In the VPN client, the CA CRL address needs to be specified manually
- D. In the firewall, compatible cipher suites must be enabled
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security engineer needs to recommend a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Identify sensitive data in the provider's network
Maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines
Detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts Enforce datacentric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control Which of the following solutions should the security engineer recommend to address these requirements?
- A. DLP
- B. CASB
- C. SWG
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider's network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and accesscontrol. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed.
SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-preventionhttps://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resou
NEW QUESTION # 64
A company is preparing to deploy a global service.
Which of the following must the company do to ensure GDPR compliance? (Choose two.)
- A. Provide alternative authentication techniques.
- B. Provide opt-in/out for marketing messages.
- C. Grant data access to third parties.
- D. Provide optional data encryption.
- E. Inform users regarding what data is stored.
- F. Provide data deletion capabilities.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Erasure is part of GDPR compliance. A citizen has the right to request their data be deleted.
Reference:
https://gdpr.eu/compliance-checklist-us-companies/
https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/
NEW QUESTION # 65
Users are reporting intermittent access issues with a new cloud application that was recently added to the network. Upon investigation, the security administrator notices the human resources department is able to run required queries with the new application, but the marketing department is unable to pull any needed reports on various resources using the new application. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be done to avoid this in the future?
- A. Modify the ACLS.
- B. Reconfigure the WAF.
- C. Review the Active Directory.
- D. Update the marketing department's browser.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 66
An application developer is including third-party background security fixes in an application. The fixes seem to resolve a currently identified security issue. However, when the application is released to the public, report come In that a previously vulnerability has returned. Which of the following should the developer integrate into the process to BEST prevent this type of behavior?
- A. User acceptance
- B. Dynamic analysis
- C. Regression testing
- D. Peer review
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
During a review of events, a security analyst notes that several log entries from the FIM system identify changes to firewall rule sets. While coordinating a response to the FIM entries, the analyst receives alerts from the DLP system that indicate an employee is sending sensitive data to an external email address. Which of the following would be the most relevant to review in order to gain a better understanding of whether these events are associated with an attack?
- A. Intrusion prevention system
- B. Configuration management tool
- C. NetFlow logs
- D. Mobile device management platform
- E. Firewall access control list
Answer: C
Explanation:
NetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A security engineer has been informed by the firewall team that a specific Windows workstation is part of a command-and-control network.
The only information the security engineer is receiving is that the traffic is occurring on a non-standard port (TCP 40322).
Which of the following commands should the security engineer use FIRST to find the malicious process?
- A. tasklist
- B. traceroute
- C. ipconfig
- D. tcpdump
- E. netstar
Answer: E
Explanation:
Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:
netstat -ano | findstr :40322
This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/
NEW QUESTION # 69
A small company recently developed prototype technology for a military program. The company's security engineer is concerned about potential theft of the newly developed, proprietary information.
Which of the following should the security engineer do to BEST manage the threats proactively?
- A. Join an information-sharing community that is relevant to the company.
- B. Update security awareness training to address new threats, such as best practices for data security.
- C. Leverage the MITRE ATT&CK framework to map the TTR.
- D. Use OSINT techniques to evaluate and analyze the threats.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. Reference: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-information-sharing-community/
NEW QUESTION # 70
A company's Chief Information Security Officer is concerned that the company's proposed move to the cloud could lead to a lack of visibility into network traffic flow logs within the VPC.
Which of the following compensating controls would be BEST to implement in this situation?
- A. EDR
- B. UEBA
- C. HIDS
- D. SIEM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions provide near realtime analysis of security alerts generated by a wide variety of network hardware, systems, and applications. SIEM platforms enhance incident detection and response capabilities by providing expanded insights into operational activity through collection, aggregation, and correlation of vast volumes of event data across the entire enterprise environmentSIEM removes much of the need to analyze individual systems by collecting log data and parsing it in a way that makes it easily searched and analyzed regardless of the underlying log format. Additionally, SIEM platforms remove much of the specialized knowledge needed to locate and analyze logs collected and stored on individual systems. For example, a security analyst can learn how to search and query for events using SIEM methods instead of learning how to interact with multiple operating systems, network devices, and/or applications to perform the same task.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A financial institution would like to store its customer data in a cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the requirement?
- A. Homomorphic
- B. Ephemeral
- C. Asymmetric
- D. Symmetric
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 72
A threat hunting team receives a report about possible APT activity in the network. Which of the following threat management frameworks should the team implement?
- A. MITRE ATT&CK
- B. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- C. NIST SP 800-53
- D. The Cyber Kill Chain
Answer: A
Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is the right answer, Cyber kill chain doesn't hand persistent as specific case since in chain event persistence is part of it. Review the link below for side by side comparison and also talks about how MITRE handles persistence attacks (search for the word).
https://verveindustrial.com/resources/blog/what-is-mitre-attack-framework/
NEW QUESTION # 73
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